If X/X = 1, why the FUCK isn't 0/0 1?????

If X/X = 1, why the FUCK isn't 0/0 1?????

because 0 goes into 0 0 times

Because it's a removable discontinuity.

>why the FUCK isn't 0/0 1?????
In which wheel?

/thread. also post this in /sqt/ rather than making a whole shitpost.

because X is still a value which is at default is technically one. zero has no value whatsoever.

dont post here ever again you fucking retards

Because dividing by zero is against the law baka

Nothing is stopping you from constructing your own toy set where that is true, but in the real numbers it’s undefined.

>i can't form a counter argument, therefore i must resort to insulting.

Not that user, but he has no obligation to respond to that degree of retardedness with supple proofs.

then why is it undetermined? and not 0?

0 goes into 0 an infinite number of times, and because infinity is a concept, not a number, it's undefined.

X/X=1 if X≠0

Because the equality X/X = 1 has domain R\{0}

the question is why, imbeciles

Suppose 0/0 is determined. Then, (0/0)*1 = (0*1)/0 = (0/0) = (0*2)/0 = (0/0)*2. Thus, (0/0)*1 = (0/0)*2. Cancelling the (0/0)s, we get 1 = 2, a clear contradiction.

In particular, suppose (0/0) = 1. There you go OP. It can't be equal to 1 or else 1 = 2 or any other thing you want.

HAIL SATAN

because division is eucleudian, but with remainders facotred into normal notation rather than kept as integers.

10/5 = 10-5 = 5-5 = 0
2 subtractions to reach 0.
Therefore 10/5 is 2.
Now try that with 0, as you may notice, subtracting zero from anything returns that same number, so in the case below
10/0 = 10-0 = 10-0 = 10-0 = 10-0 = 10-0 = 10-0 = 10-0...
we never go anywhere, its a Sisyphean task and thus we say its undefined, because no one is autistic enough to spend their entire life subtracting nothing from something.

Because x*0 = 0 (so if we divide by zero lol banter) we get x = 0/0 so it's just not defined

epic bants my friend i see how you divided by zero for le math error

because lim x,y->0 of x/y does not exist

If you localize at a multiplicative set containing 0 you get the trivial ring.

>(0/0)*1 = (0*1)/0 = (0/0) = (0*2)/0 = (0/0)*2

this is begging the quesiton, because you are assuming that 0/0 is in fact 0.

Where do I assume (0/0) = 0? Brainlet.

thank you kindly

a*2=a*1 only occurs when a=0.

>it's because lim x,y -> 0 x/y does not exist

Because it's valid only when x =/= 0

no you fucking retard he's looking at (0/0)*1 = (0*1/0) = 0/0 as you literally quoted

brainlets OUT

>he doesn't understand transitivity

i pray for you, user...

cry more faggot, you didn't understand a simple operation

>simple operation
>ignores an axiom while invoking an axiom for said "operation"

l o l

l m a o

Let me try again for the brainlet in the thread. Maybe another point of view will be of help.

Let x be any number. Then 0*x = 0 be definition of the zero element of a set. If division by zero is defined, then x = (0/0). In particular, if (0/0) is defined to be y, then there exists another number that is different from y such that this number equals y. This is a clear contradiction.

>be definition
by definition, little typo

that's assuming "any" number has to be reflexive, brainlet.

>you are wrong bcuz you assume that every number must be equal to itself
>brnltwojack.jpg

Actually I laughed out loud, I get that this is a joke but I wanted to push the autism

>X/X
It's X * X^-1. The inverse of X.
0 has no inverse.

lol, are you stooopid?

>Then 0*x = 0 be definition of the zero element of a set
not true. this is a consequence, not an axiom.

>This is a clear contradiction.
A contradiction of what exactly?

That's the definition of a left zero in a magma.

Zero is NOT a number. Zero is a place holder. 1 is a UNIT. Pic related

>If division by zero is defined, then x = (0/0).
Of this. (0/0) cannot be equal to a defined number x, because it implies that x=y for any number y you want. In particular, if (0/0) is defined to be 1, it implies that 1 = 2.

no problem.
Sorry you have to deal with all these autists who can't explain a basic mathematical function.

>what is a proof by contradiction

This is only true when x isn't 0.

Well if (0/0) = 0, we have that (0/0) = 0 = 1*0 = 2*0. Divide everything by zero (which is allowed under our hypothesis that 0/0=0) and we get 0 = 1 = 2.

Leemi give you some food for thought:
X/X = 1
so 0/0 = 1
not 0/0 = 0
you assume that 0/0 = 0 a priori despite the mathematical law that any number divided by itself is 1.
Furthermore, the fault in your proof of contradicion is that you make the statement that:
0*1 = 0*2
without proving that this is true. You just assert that 0*1 = 0*2 without first proving that. You can't start with an equation that is already false in your proof, that just shit logic.

Now let me show you some real mathematical proof, brainlet:
a = 1
b = 2
0/0 = 1
ergo:
ab = 2
ab*(0/0) = 2(0/0) (rule of symmetry what you do to one side you MUST do to the other as well or you made an error in your equation from the get-go)
since 0/0 = 1,
ab*1 = 2*1
therefore
ab = 2

its pretty redundant but as you can see, assuming 0/0 = 1 following the rule that any number divided by itself is 1, we can see that ab = 2 desite the presence of 0/0, and furthermore that a is the same as 0/0 since a is 1 and 0/0 is 1.
But as pointed out, that is not how division works, so the fault itself exists within the 0/0 = 1 principle itself, it being the exception to the x/x = 1 rule due to the very nature of division.
In other words, doing mathematical proof like i just showed is completely redundant in proving that 0/0 != 1 :^)

>ab = 2
>You can't start with an equation that is already false in your proof, that just shit logic.
Prove to me that ab=2, brainlet. I want to proof to be fully formalized and starting from the axioms of your preffered system (or else that's just shit logic).

1*2 = 2
a = 1
b = 2
therefore
ab = 2

This assumes the axioms:
1 = 1
1 + 1 = 2
x*1 = x


You seem buthurt? still mad your creampie made your new chair dirty, faggot? :^)

>0 = 1*0 = 2*0
how?

wew lad, epic trolln :^)

it's defined as an infinite set my nigga

>these retards
Just let x/0 = a number "infinity" s.t. a*infinity = infinity and infinity + a = infinity, 0*infinity = 1.

If X/(2X) = 1/2, why the FUCK isn't 0/(2*0)=0/0 1/2?????

Let 0 be the additive identity of a field F(+,*).
Suppose 0 has an multiplicative inverse x.
Then x * 0 = 1, where 1 is the multiplicative identity.
Suppose f and g are any two elements of the field.
Then g * f = g * f, g * f - g * f = 0, and g * (f - f) = 0. Thus, g * 0 = 0 for all elements g.
So, there exists no x in the field such that x * 0 =1, and thus 0 has no multiplicative inverse.
I think I did that right?

>X/X = 1
X/X isn't 1, it's 1 as long as x != 0

zero factorial divided by zero factorial is equal to one

0!=1

0!/0! = 1
(0/0)! = 1
0/0 = 1¡
QED