Watch this: [math](x + y)^p = x^p + y^p[/math]
Watch this: [math](x + y)^p = x^p + y^p[/math]
Other urls found in this thread:
en.wikipedia.org
twitter.com
Me when I was 14.
THE ABSOLUTE MADMAN
if you don't know math, don't comment on math threads. simple.
...Yes, and?
[math](a+b)^p=\sum_{i=0}^{p}(\frac{p!}{i!(p-i)!})a^{p-i}b^i[/math]
FTFY
>he doesn't know p = 0
brainlet
Prime modulus aritmetics is based as fuck
Oh p is prime lmao
Bait
That's unsurprisingly true in any field of characteristic p, provided that p is prime.
I'm more concerned about the [math ] syntax not working well and showing up... why even bother?
At first, I asked myself why I had never seen that property before.
Then I realised it's just
F E R M A T ' S L I T T L E T H E O R E M
Disappointing.
If your aren't a brainlet who's had his brain rotted by anime you'd realize it's much simpler to simply prove this result and then take Fermat's Little Theorem as an instant corollary.
>corollary
more like a lemma you pleb
I mean, binomial expantion gives the problem away, but how does the thesis yield that [math](x + y)^p = x^p + y^p[/math] is actually [math]x+y[/math]?
Idk, Fermat's Little Theorem is already as easy as it gets to prove, also its proof is instructive on how you can use inverses modulo p
[math](4 + 3)^3 = 343[/math]
[math]4^3 + 3^3 = 91[/math]
>3
>prime
cause [eqn]x^p =(x-1)^p + 1^p =(x-1)^p +1[/eqn] do this a few more times and you'll have x many 1s there.
>3 isn't prime
I see. Well, that's a nice proof, too. Surely better than that meme necklace one
idk just something I figured out a while backs I never learned the necklace one cause I'm too stupid lol
because [math]a = \sum_{1}^{a}1[/math]
hello op i must inform u this is totally not correct i will show u real way first of all u take the x and make it so that if u put x multiply by x then u have 2x or x2 and then u multiply all 2 and u have x2y or xy2 short and then y is 2x too so result is x2 * xy2 * y2
Now divide both by 3 and take the remainders
What necklace?
>1 + 0 = 1
Wow, you discovered one of the basic axioms of mathematics! When will you get your fields medal?
Watch thia x^i=-x wao much euler very smurt
the first 5 primes are 2 3 5 7 11, brainlet
CONGRUENCE IS NOT EQUALITY
wtf
isn't this just basic algebra?
what's the joke
What are the factors of 3 then huh
ya fggt get fucking rekt im much smarter than you
hahaha brainlet hahaha
It is if you're in the right ring
Oh this can be an interesting question: What's the lower bound of the error when you use the approximation :
[eqn] (x+y)^p \; \approx \; x^p \, + \,y^p [/eqn]
Also what condtitions can be imposed on [math]x,y[/math] and [math]p[/math] to have a relative error level under a certain threshold [math]\epsilon[/math] i.e. conditions such as
[eqn]\left|\frac{x^p+y^p}{(x+y)^p}\right|
shut up
Seems you've failed math101
[eqn]\left|\frac{x^p+y^p}{(x+y)^p}\right|
Wouldn't you want
[eqn]\left|\frac{x^p+y^p}{(x+y)^p}-1\right|
see OP wrote exactly what he wanted, the point was to get surprised reactions from people who don't know math and don't instantly recognize what he posted as true
>1 < eps for any eps
idiot
>missing the point
>dividing by a non-unit
>comparing its absolute value and not its distance to 1
brainlet
I thought you couldn't distribute exponents to added terms?
guess that's correct, if x and y are orthogonal vectors and we're talking about taking the inner product.
you can if the field has characteristic [math]p[\math]
>If I leave away important information people will think it's not a tautology, even though it is when I assume [math] x,y \in \mathbb{Z} ~,~ p ~\text{is prime}[/math] and it's actually all mod p.
>LeL brainlets
2*1
Let [math] x=1, y=3, p=2 [/math]
>Use non-standard notation
>Make false statement that is only true in the particular ring I was thinking about
Haha tricked you brainlets can't read my mind
k
>taking the pth power is non standard notation
b r a i n l e t
if you didn't see and use this identity a lot in your algebra sequence, you shouldn't post in math threads
If p = 0 it would be 1 = 2.
I won't be mean to you. p is 0 mod p.
That's not what he was referring to by nonstandard notation, moron.
its such a common notion that it has its own name.
>en.wikipedia.org
Fermat BTFO
you forgot 1 number...
>1 is prime
I want brainlets to leave
1 is a super prime, mathematicians are just too lazy to acknowledge it
If [math]p[/math] is a prime number and [math](x,y) \in ( \frac{ \mathbf{Z} }{ p\mathbf{Z} } )^2 [/math] it works. Using Newton's binomial formula, it is obvious.