How the fuck is this even possible. wtf

how the fuck is this even possible. wtf

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bump, my head hurts. someone pls help me understand the intuition

[eqn]
\sqrt{a^2 - x^2} \\
= a * \sqrt{1 - \frac{x}{a}^2} \\
[/eqn]
Let [math]\frac{x}{a} = \sin(\theta)[/math], ie [math]x = a * \sin(\theta)[/math]

This means that [math]\theta = \arcsin(\frac{x}{a})[/math] ; use that to compute [math]\theta_0[/math] and [math]\theta_f[/math].

This also means that [math]\mathrm{d}x = \mathrm{d}(a * \sin(\theta))[/math], ie : [math]\mathrm{d}x = a * \cos(\theta)\mathrm{d}\theta[/math] ; replace [math]\mathrm{d}x[/math] by this expression in your integral.

You have effectively did everything needed for a change of variable.

Finally going back to where we started, we can write :

[eqn]
\sqrt{a^2 - x^2} \\
= a * \sqrt{1 - \sin(\theta)^2} \\
= a * \cos(\theta)
[/eqn]

There you go, nasty integral ain't so nasty after all.

t. engineer

[math]
\sqrt{a^2 - x^2} \\ = a * \sqrt{1 - (\frac{x}{a})^2}
[/math]
Forgot muh parenthesis

>/sqt/ for question like that lad

It's just writing the integral in terms of a new variable. It's the same thing as u sub but it makes these integrals come out easier.

idk it just seems like a crazy concept. Its hard to really grasp wtf how this is even possible

arctan' and stuff

Change of variables isn't a crazy concept
Let's have a point, it's represented without ambiguity by both Cartesian and polar coordinates, and you can change the expression of those in any function involved them

[eqn]x = r * \cos \theta \\
y = r * \sin \theta \\
x^2 + y^2 = r^2 * (\cos^2 \theta + \sin^2 \theta) \\
= r^2
[/eqn]
These substitutions are one of the most basic tools in solving integrals, right after (((inspection)))

thanks for the comment
im thinking that im really over complicating this.

Watch zieth chnalu
youtube.com/user/blackpenredpen

how do you write in smart on Veeky Forums?
(by smart I mean formulas)

...

wait until you discover
[math]\begin{align}
\arcsin(z) &{}= -i \ln \left( iz + \sqrt{1-z^2} \right) \\
\arccos(z) &{}= -i \ln \left( z + \sqrt{z^2-1} \right) = \frac{\pi}{2} \, + i \ln \left( iz + \sqrt{1-z^2} \right) \\
\arctan(z) &{}= \tfrac{1}{2} i \left[ \ln \left(1 - iz \right) - \ln \left( 1 + iz \right) \right]
\end{align}[/math]

read the sticky

You definitely are, its the exact same thinking you applied to the most based geometry problems when you were 8 or some shit finding the volume of a cylinder but needing to substitute diameter for radius

Why this is defined just in the range of - pi/2 to pi/2?

it makes sense if toy draw it out

upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/f/fe/Unit-circle_sin_cos_tan_cot_exsec_excsc_versin_cvs.svg

*you

this, i dont understand that either

Are you serious? That's the range where the sine function has unique outputs. If the range included something like 5pi/6 then the sine of it would be 1/2, a value already yielded by pi/6. Take a look at the inverse trig functions if you need a visual

see what i dont get is that thetha is restricting the domain from those bounds but from the orginal integral the x values arent restricted? so how can that work out

Same doubt

And calc II is when the plebs change majors to business or history.....

I can solve the problems no doubt. But I'd rather try to understand why is like that. This has been bothering me for a whike