>Christians on the internet butthurt about Occam's Razor for ten years
>now they use it to "prove" flat earth
Two theories both explain data
How does one theory being right imply the OTHER theory is falsefiable?
>ITT: Brainlets who don;t know what indetermination is
Sounds like you're the brainlet since you can't even refute them
>"Intelligent designer" is nowhere to be found
>"Intelligent designer" decided to communicate with us 2000 years ago by sending us his son and killing him (???)
>Meanwhile we can measure the expansion of the universe
Religioncucks tend to argue straw man that atheists use Occam's Razor to disprove God, when in reality, all they do is refuse to entertain the existence of such a ridiculously complex, utterly needless and laughably ambiguous concept.
That isnt even an argument, any time someone tries to throw retardation like that at you its time to tap out because they are beyond any hope.
Science purpose is to fit the experimental data, I will choose the simplest theory for doing that just because I want to do less calculations and assumptions
>b-but m-muh specific definitions
This is why everyone hate mathfags
>Two theories both explain data
>Argue Occam's razor instead of proposing a way to find the right theory
No it doesnt. It requires that you accept the existence of God as an axiom. In many cases, that is still a simpler explanation.
I meant that if the other theory was a well formed theory and also wrong, then it should be possible to demonstrate through empiricism the wrongness of that second theory. Then instead of saying "my theory is simpler" you could say "the other theory is wrong"